Constitutionalism in Western Civilization

Prompt: While absolutism seemed to manifest itself in17th century France, England was a different matter. Unlike France, England had a history (perhaps even a liberal history) of parliamentary cooperation between the nobles in the House of Lords and the land owning commoners in the House of Commons. This made for quite a political contrast.

What contributed to the rise of constitutionalism in England?

Why did this work in England and not in France? or the rest of central Europe?

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