Prompt: While absolutism seemed to manifest itself in17th century France, England was a different matter. Unlike France, England had a history (perhaps even a liberal history) of parliamentary cooperation between the nobles in the House of Lords and the land owning commoners in the House of Commons. This made for quite a political contrast.
What contributed to the rise of constitutionalism in England?
Why did this work in England and not in France? or the rest of central Europe?
Some links that might help: