I just need these 3 questions answered in a couple paragraphs to help wrap up my essay.
Does the decision made by the Supreme Court in Dickerson have implications for the federal exclusionary rule?
If Miranda is a command of the Constitution and cannot be overruled by Congress isn’t the exclusionary rule a rule of the Constitution?
The current U.S. Supreme Court position is that the exclusionary rule is a court-made rule and not a command of the Constitution. Can that logic survive Dickerson? Why or why not?